Post by brianwagner on Oct 16, 2016 13:47:02 GMT -6
Here is an interesting passage whose interpretation turns on the translation of two Hebrew words. I am going to paste both the KJV, the ESV, and LXX (translation) and emphasize with bold print where the two words are translated.
KJV
7 And if a man sell his daughter to be a maidservant, she shall not go out as the menservants do. 8 If she please not her master, who hath bethrothed her to himself, then shall he let her be redeemed: to sell her unto a strange nation he shall have no power, seeing he hath dealt deceitfully with her.3 9 And if he have betrothed her unto his son, he shall deal with her after the manner of daughters. 10 If he take him another [wife]; her food, her raiment, and her duty of marriage, shall he not diminish. 11 And if he do not these three unto her, then shall she go out free without money.
ESV
7 “When a man sells his daughter as a slave, she shall not go out as the male slaves do. 8 If she does not please her master, who has designated her for himself, then he shall let her be redeemed. He shall have no right to sell her to a foreign people, since he has broken faith with her. 9 If he designates her for his son, he shall deal with her as with a daughter. 10 If he takes another wife to himself, he shall not diminish her food, her clothing, or her marital rights. 11 And if he does not do these three things for her, she shall go out for nothing, without payment of money.
LXX
7 And if any one sell his daughter as a domestic, she shall not depart as the maid-servants depart. 8 If she be not pleasing to her master, after she has betrothed herself to him, he shall let her go free; but he is not at liberty to sell her to a foreign nation, because he has trifled with her. 9 And if he should have betrothed her to his son, he shall do to her according to the right of daughters. 10 And if he take another to himself, he shall not deprive her of necessaries and her apparel, and her companionship [with him]. 11 And if he will not do these three things to her, she shall go out free without money.
The word - יָעַד - translated in the KJV "betrothed" is not the normal Hebrew word for betrothal, which is - אָרַשׂ . And the word translated "betrothed" from the LXX - καθομολογέω - does not have "engagement" as its primary meaning. Since the context begins with a father selling his daughter to be an indentured servant, which has just followed the explanation of indentured servanthood for men, it should not be assumed she was being sold into marriage. The LXX calling her a "domestic" is more in line with the context. The ESV using the translation "designated" also seems more appropriate.
The only remaining difficulty is the second Hebrew word - עוֹנָה - KJV: "duty of marriage", ESV: "marital rights", LXX: "companionship". The Hebrew word is a hapax logomenon... there are no other occurrences in the OT. Dogmatism should be avoided therefore as to its meaning. The Greek word selected in the LXX - ὁμιλίαν - can be sexual intercourse or normal interaction with others, just like the English word "intercourse" used to also mean.
I am interested in what others think and why, exegetically of this passage... but I think Moses is saying that indentured female servants must be protected and let go before the seven years are up if things do not work out as contracted. As a domestic servant for the man, doing his cooking/cleaning, she should be provided with her needs of food, clothing and opportunities for companionship. If he hired her to clean his single son's room :-) then the father is responsible to protect her like his own daughter so that she is not mistreated by his son. If things don't work out, he should not sell her to a foreigner for the remaining years of service, but actually he should let her return home without getting reimbursed by her father for whatever years of the contract are unfulfilled.
KJV
7 And if a man sell his daughter to be a maidservant, she shall not go out as the menservants do. 8 If she please not her master, who hath bethrothed her to himself, then shall he let her be redeemed: to sell her unto a strange nation he shall have no power, seeing he hath dealt deceitfully with her.3 9 And if he have betrothed her unto his son, he shall deal with her after the manner of daughters. 10 If he take him another [wife]; her food, her raiment, and her duty of marriage, shall he not diminish. 11 And if he do not these three unto her, then shall she go out free without money.
ESV
7 “When a man sells his daughter as a slave, she shall not go out as the male slaves do. 8 If she does not please her master, who has designated her for himself, then he shall let her be redeemed. He shall have no right to sell her to a foreign people, since he has broken faith with her. 9 If he designates her for his son, he shall deal with her as with a daughter. 10 If he takes another wife to himself, he shall not diminish her food, her clothing, or her marital rights. 11 And if he does not do these three things for her, she shall go out for nothing, without payment of money.
LXX
7 And if any one sell his daughter as a domestic, she shall not depart as the maid-servants depart. 8 If she be not pleasing to her master, after she has betrothed herself to him, he shall let her go free; but he is not at liberty to sell her to a foreign nation, because he has trifled with her. 9 And if he should have betrothed her to his son, he shall do to her according to the right of daughters. 10 And if he take another to himself, he shall not deprive her of necessaries and her apparel, and her companionship [with him]. 11 And if he will not do these three things to her, she shall go out free without money.
The word - יָעַד - translated in the KJV "betrothed" is not the normal Hebrew word for betrothal, which is - אָרַשׂ . And the word translated "betrothed" from the LXX - καθομολογέω - does not have "engagement" as its primary meaning. Since the context begins with a father selling his daughter to be an indentured servant, which has just followed the explanation of indentured servanthood for men, it should not be assumed she was being sold into marriage. The LXX calling her a "domestic" is more in line with the context. The ESV using the translation "designated" also seems more appropriate.
The only remaining difficulty is the second Hebrew word - עוֹנָה - KJV: "duty of marriage", ESV: "marital rights", LXX: "companionship". The Hebrew word is a hapax logomenon... there are no other occurrences in the OT. Dogmatism should be avoided therefore as to its meaning. The Greek word selected in the LXX - ὁμιλίαν - can be sexual intercourse or normal interaction with others, just like the English word "intercourse" used to also mean.
I am interested in what others think and why, exegetically of this passage... but I think Moses is saying that indentured female servants must be protected and let go before the seven years are up if things do not work out as contracted. As a domestic servant for the man, doing his cooking/cleaning, she should be provided with her needs of food, clothing and opportunities for companionship. If he hired her to clean his single son's room :-) then the father is responsible to protect her like his own daughter so that she is not mistreated by his son. If things don't work out, he should not sell her to a foreigner for the remaining years of service, but actually he should let her return home without getting reimbursed by her father for whatever years of the contract are unfulfilled.
