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Post by CowboysDad on Feb 1, 2021 0:33:26 GMT -6
What do you think is meant by "And let his prayer become sin"?
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Post by brianwagner on Feb 1, 2021 5:58:40 GMT -6
The NET has - Psalm 109:7 NET — When he is judged, he will be found guilty! Then his prayer will be regarded as sinful.
The YLT has - Psalm 109:7 YLT — In his being judged, he goeth forth wicked, And his prayer is for sin.
The context is during the judgment of the wicked when he cries out for mercy. His prayer is regarded as sin for he is not repenting of his wickedness, he is only seeking relief from the judgment.
I'm reminded of those who seem to know they are rejected in judgment and then they cry out why they think they shouldn't be judged.
Matthew 7:22-23 NKJV — “Many will say to Me in that day, ‘Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in Your name, cast out demons in Your name, and done many wonders in Your name?’ And then I will declare to them, ‘I never knew you; depart from Me, you who practice lawlessness!’"
Their "prayer" is an excuse why they shouldn't be judged and it reveals the sin of their trust they had in their good works to save them, which is why they are being condemned. That prayer is a sinful request, asking God to forgive an unrepentant sinner.
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adamkeim
New Member
Former pastor and seminary instructor. Adjusting to Texas life. Member of Elk Ridge Baptist Church.
Posts: 3
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Post by adamkeim on Feb 1, 2021 8:40:57 GMT -6
In David's imprecation against his opponent:
v. 6: he calls for God to "appoint upon/over him a wicked one, and [let] an accuser upon/at his right [hand]."
v. 7: he desires that "in his [being] judged, [it] shall bring forth guilt/wickedness, and his prayer, let it be for sin."
(My own translation, I'm open to suggestions!)
Perhaps David is evoking judicial imagery intentionally. If so, he wishes for his opponent to fail in court, so to speak. His opponent would be tried, and his appeal would be "for sin."
There is much in the context of the whole imprecation that speaks to David's temporal situation, and much that appears to speak to something greater, like an eschatological judgment, as Brian suggests. Either way, the concept of someone's prayer being "for sin" seems to be the rub for many people. How would David want anything to be sin?
It could be simplistic to say that sin here is just to "miss the mark," as in David's opponent's plea would miss the mark of holding up in court. That might be the case, and it sounds more friendly, but David's imprecation is very strong (e.g. vv. 9-10, 14), and he seems to wish for lasting judgement, a la what the unredeemed will find at the final judgement. If this is the case, I like Brian's reference to Mt. 7:22-23.
David, for his being a true man after God's own heart, is human like the other psalmists. His emotions laid bare, his viscerally desires his opponents to falter. And like a man after God's own heart, he lays this out in a prayer, trusting in the God to whom belongs vengeance. The God of grace.
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Post by CowboysDad on Feb 6, 2021 23:54:46 GMT -6
What do you think of this slightly amplified translation?
"When judged, let the verdict be 'Guilty,' and despite his appeal, let him not be shown mercy for his sin." Or, "... let his appeal end with 'You've missed the mark.'" Earlier David says that he is a man of prayer (v. 4) and that he has confidence that the LORD will stand at the right hand of the afflicted to save them from condemnation (v. 21). In contrast in v. 12 David requests that the wicked man not be granted mercy and in v. 14 that the sin of his mother not be blotted out.
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