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Post by richardklein on May 6, 2017 17:57:36 GMT -6
J.C. Ryle suggests that the idea of the man "slipping away" (NASB) could be rendered "swimming away".
What'chathink?
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Post by samuel on May 6, 2017 18:51:06 GMT -6
I don't know about "swimming", none of Strong's references to the Greek G1593 suggest swimming away would be appropriate. The KJV uses "Conveyed himself away", with most of the modern versions using "Jesus had withdrawn'. I think, I like that much better than "swimming away". Where was he supposed! to be swimming too?.
The Greek G1593, seems to be a phrase that could not be translated, with a single English word. So that leaves it an open shooting gallery, for those who want to take a shot. 
I also have a Greek, Hebrew, English Interlinear. That translates G1593 as "had withdrawn", so I think I would settle for that. |
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Post by CowboysDad on May 6, 2017 22:26:26 GMT -6
I see where Ryle quotes Schleusner as saying that the root of the idea is “swimming out, or escaping by swimming,” but Ryle seems to take the reasonable position that "... it is not improbable that, as in Luke iv. 30, at Nazareth, and John x. 39, in the Temple, our Lord put forth a miraculous power in passing or gliding through the crowd without being observed or stopped." I did not find any extra-biblical usage of this word that would support its usage as "to escape by swimming," but admittedly it does seem to be related to that root. Perhaps, like a swimmer cutting through water, this unique word could carry the sense of cutting through the crowd, perhaps miraculously, but no doubt on his feet.
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Post by brianwagner on May 7, 2017 7:24:30 GMT -6
I am not seeing the miracle, just the withdrawal of Jesus to avoid a major public confrontation, since His hour had not yet come. I see Genitive Absolute participial phrase - "a crowd being in the place" as having a causitive use - "because there was a crowd in that place", that's why He withdrew Himself, imo.
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